TOP 5 TAKKAR NEWS OF THE DAY (18th AUGUST 2023)

1. FINFLUENCERS WILL REQUIRE REGISTRATION OR LICENCE FROM SEBI, IRDAI

TAG: GS 3: ECONOMY

THE CONTEXT: In a bid to safeguard consumer interests, the Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI) has tightened its guidelines for financial social media influencers also known as “finfluencers.”

EXPLANATION:

  • The revised guidelines by ASCI comes at a time when SEBI has raised concerns about finfluencers spreading misleading advice regarding investments and stock trading.
  • In its revised guidelines, ASCI said that ‘finfluencers’ can now offer investment-related advice only after being registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
  • The self-regulatory body has also tightened guidelines for influencers who endorse products making health and nutrition-related claims.
  • It has said that such influencers must hold relevant qualifications such as medical degrees or certification in nursing, nutrition, dietetics, physiotherapy or psychology.
  • They should prominently display their registration number alongside name and qualifications.
  • For other financial advice, influencers must possess appropriate credentials such as a licence from the IRDAI and be a qualified as a chartered accountant, hold a company secretaryship, among others.
  • The self-regulatory body added that health and financial influencers must give proper disclosure about their qualifications and registration details on all types of promotional material.
  • These disclosures should be superimposed on the visuals prominently and upfront, or mentioned as the opening remark in the video.
  • Moreover, they are expected to adhere to all disclosure prerequisites as stipulated by financial sector regulators from time to time.

Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI):

  • It was established in 1985 under Section 25 of the Companies Act, 1956.
  • It has been defined as a “voluntary, self-regulatory council” which has been registered as a non-profit company.
  • The ASCI team consists of a Board of Governors, members of the Consumer Complaints Council and a Secretariat.
  • The Board of the ASCI consists of a governor and 16 members, which comprise of members of reputable firms including media agencies, advertisers and other individuals involved with the advertising business.
  • The Secretariat consists of 5 members and is headed by the Secretary General.
  • The ultimate mission of the ASCI is to promote truthfulness, honesty, public decency, societal standards and to oppose hazardous products.
  • The objectives of the ASCI include to “monitor, manage and promote” standards with respect to advertising practices in the country, with a view to ensure the following:
  1. That advertising claims are presented with truthfulness and honesty, and that no misleading and false claims are made.
  2. That the advertisements are not made and presented in a manner which is offensive to the general public in India, and that the standards of public agency are followed.
  3. That no advertisement is made in respect of products or services regarded as hazardous or unacceptable to individuals or to the society.
  4. That no unfair means are used by anyone player in the market, and that advertisements are made in a competitive manner.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/finfluencers-will-require-registration-or-licence-from-sebi-irdai-asci/article67206218.ece

2. UDGAM PORTAL

TAG: GS 3: ECONOMY

THE CONTEXT: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently unveiled a centralised Web Portal UDGAM (Unclaimed Deposits Gateway to Access information) as part of its statement on Development and Regulatory Policies.

EXPLANATION:

  • The web portal will aid users to identify their unclaimed deposits/ accounts and enable them to either claim the deposit amount or make their deposit accounts operative at their respective banks.
  • Reserve Bank Information Technology Pvt. Ltd. (ReBIT), Indian Financial Technology & Allied Services (IFTAS), and participating banks have collaborated on developing the portal.
  • It allows users to search their unclaimed deposits across multiple banks in one place.
  • For now, customers of the seven banks listed on the portal, including State Bank of India, Punjab National Bank, Central Bank of India, Dhanlaxmi Bank, South Indian Bank, DBS Bank, and Citibank can start using the UDGAM portal. The search facility for remaining banks on the portal would be made available in a phased manner by October 15, 2023.
  • The UDGAM portal only allows users to access the details of the bank account, not the actual funds.
  • The proceedings to access unclaimed deposits then continue at the concerned branch of the bank where the deposit is sitting.
  • The launch comes months after the RBI started work in April on an AI-enabled web portal that helped users locate unclaimed deposits sitting in bank accounts.
  • The RBI said all the bank deposits unclaimed for ten years are transferred to the Depositor Education and Awareness (DEA) Fund.
  • Unclaimed deposits, which are 10 years or more, in the public sector banks (PSBs), grew by over 70% between December 2020 and February 2023. Moreover, PSBs transferred INR 35,012 Cr in such deposits to the DEA Fund as of February 2023.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/business/rbi-unveils-udgam-portal-for-search-of-unclaimed-deposits/article67206262.ece

3. INS VINDHYAGIRI

TAG: GS 3: INTERNAL SECURITY, DEFENCE

THE CONTEXT: Recently, The President launched INS Vindhyagiri a frigate, in the series of Project 17A (Alpha) frigates built by the Indian Navy at Kolkata-based Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE).

EXPLANATION:

  • President said that Project 17A, under which INS Vindhyagiri was developed, reflects the country’s commitment to self-reliance and technological advancement as well as indigenous innovation for developing state-of-the-art technology.
  • Following the launch, Vindhyagiri will join its two sister ships INS Nilgiri, INS Udaygiri, at the Outfitting Jetty at GRSE, to progress remaining activities and equipment trials, in the run-up to their delivery and commissioning.

INS Vindhyagiri:

  • Vindhyagiri, named after the mountain range in Karnataka, is the sixth ship of the Project 17A program.
  • These warships are follow-ons of the Project 17 Class Frigates (Shivalik Class), with improved stealth features, advanced weapons and sensors and platform management systems.
  • Vindhyagiri’, a technologically advanced Frigate, pays a befitting tribute to the distinguished service of its predecessor, the erstwhile INS Vindhyagiri, the Leander Class ASW Frigate.
  • The old Vindhyagiri in its nearly 31 years of service from July 1981 to Jun 2012, had witnessed various challenging operations and multinational exercises.
  • The newly christened Vindhyagiri stands as a symbol of India’s determination to embrace its rich naval heritage while propelling itself towards a future of indigenous defence capabilities.

What is Project 17A of the Indian Navy?

  • Project 17 Alpha frigates (P-17A) were launched by the Indian Navy in 2019. Project 17A Frigates are the follow-on class of the Project 17 (Shivalik Class) Frigates, with improved stealth features, advanced weapons and sensors and platform management systems.
  • The project was launched by the defence forces of India to construct a series of stealth guided-missile frigates, which are currently being constructed by two companies – Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders (MDL) and Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE).
  • Under the Project 17A program, a total of four ships by Mazagon Dock Ltd (MDL) and three ships by GRSE are under construction. The project’s first five ships have been launched by the MDL and GRSE between 2019 and 2022.
  • The ships have been named as INS Nilgiri, INS Himgiri, INS Udaygiri, INS Dunagiri, INS Taragiri, INS Vindhyagiri and INS Mahendragiri after the names of hill ranges in India.
  • Project 17A ships have been designed in-house by the Indian Navy’s Warship Design Bureau, the pioneer organization for all warship design activities.
  • These guided-missile frigates have been constructed with a specific stealth design, which has radar-absorbent coatings and is low-observable which can make its approach undetectable for the enemies. The new technology also reduces the infrared signals of the ship.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/kolkata/president-murmu-launches-my-bengal-addiction-free-bengal-campaign-in-kolkata/article67205978.ece

4. SIGNIFICANCE OF THE SULINA CHANNEL FOR UKRAINE GRAIN TRADE

TAG: GS 2: INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

THE CONTEXT: The Danube delta has provided Ukraine with an alternative passage for its grain after Russia withdrew from the Black Sea grain deal.

EXPLANATION:

  • The Sulina Channel is particularly significant in this ‘new’ trading route.
  • The deal, which was brokered by the UN and Turkey, used to provide grain-carrying cargo ships a safe route to and from the Ukrainian Black Sea ports of Odessa, Chornomorsk, and Pivdennyi.

DANUBE RIVER

  • The Danube is the second largest river of Europe.
  • It has historically been crucial for the movement of freight.
  • The river starts to expand out into its delta around Tulcea, Romania, some 80 km from the sea.
  • This delta has three main channels: Chilia, Sulina, and St. George.
  • Only the Sulina Channel, which has been dredged and straightened, is deep and wide enough for the freight transportation.
  • It flows through the Germany, Austria, Slovakia, Hungary, Croatia, Serbia, Bulgaria, Romania, Moldova, Ukraine.
  • The Danube River is the second-longest river in Europe after the Volga.

SULINA CHANNEL

  • Sulina is situated at the mouth of the Danube.
  • Sulina Channel is the distributary of Danube with a length of 63 km.
  • The Sulina Channel is situated in the eastern part of Romania, near the town of Sulina.
  • It connects major Ukrainian ports on the river to the Black Sea, lying completely within the borders of Romania.

CONSTRAINTS OF THE ROUTE

  • Russia has desisted from attacking NATO-controlled territories.
  • Though continued targeting of Ukrainian ports and grain facilities on the Danube can be crippling.
  • Ukraine has historically not used the Danube for grain exports.
  • They relied instead on its rail network and Black Sea ports.
  • This has meant that the capacity of Ukrainian ports to handle the volume of grain suddenly coming their way is fairly limited.
  • Another problem, given the sheer traffic on the Channel, has been congestion at its mouth.
  • Boats are having to wait for days before they can enter the Channel, causing major delays in shipping.
  • One solution is to transport the grain from Ukraine to Romania via rail and use Romanian ports instead.
  • This would lead to considerable loss of revenue in the form of loading fees and other expenses for Ukraine.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/the-importance-of-the-sulina-channel-to-ukraine-grain-trade-8895778/

5. INTERNATIONAL CROPS RESEARCH INSTITUTE FOR THE SEMI-ARID TROPICS (ICRISAT)

TAG: GS 3: ECONOMY, AGRICULTURE

THE CONTEXT: ICRISAT’s World Vegetable Centre in Hyderabad is helping farmers in crop diversification.

EXPLANATION:

  • The World Vegetable Centre under the aegis of ICRISAT is helping farmers from Telangana and across India in diversifying their crop production.
  • Recently, the centre has invited the farmers to the centre  and made them aware of several strategies like grafting, staking etc.
  • Demonstrations were also organised on how to put these strategies to use for better crop production.
  • The aim behind the outreach to farmers is to bridge their knowledge gap and encourage them to take up vegetable farming.
  • The centre has also been promoting home gardening, urban/semi-urban vegetable cultivation and marketing.
  • The centre is also looking at collaborating with the government of Telangana to start home gardens in communities located in Hyderabad.
  • According to the centre, the current average daily consumption of vegetables stands at 86 grams in India. This is significantly less compared to FAO standard of daily consumption of 200 grams of vegetables.
  • Promotion of vegetable farming by the centre can help reduce the supply-demand gap which can increase the daily consumption of vegetables.

World Vegetable Centre

  • The World Vegetable Center (WorldVeg) was established in 1971 as the Asian Vegetable Research and Development Center (AVRDC) in Taiwan.
  • The World Vegetable Center conducts research and builds networks.
  • It carries out training and promotion activities to raise awareness of the role of vegetables for improved health and global poverty alleviation.
  • The Center’s research and development work focuses on breeding improved vegetable lines.
  • It also aims at developing and promoting safe production practices, reducing postharvest losses, and improving the nutritional value of vegetables.
  • It aims for healthier lives and more resilient livelihoods through greater diversity.

International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT)

  • It is an international organization which conducts agricultural research for rural development.
  • Its headquarters is in Patancheru (Hyderabad, Telangana).
  • It was founded in 1972 by a consortium of organisations convened by the Ford and the Rockefeller foundations.
  • Its charter was signed by the FAO and the UNDP.
  • It is a non-profit, non-political public international research organization that conducts agricultural research for development in Asia and sub-Saharan Africa.
  • It has been awarded the 2021 Africa Food Prize, for its work that has improved food security across 13 countries in sub-Saharan Africa.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/telangana/icrisats-world-vegetable-centre-helping-farmers-in-crop-diversification/article67205283.ece




Day-480 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | CURRENT DEVELOPMENTS

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question
    2 points

    1. Which of the following is/are the benefits of cloning?
    1. It can help in studying diseases.
    2. It can help in recreating the extinct species.
    3. It can produce organisms which are genetically identical to parents.
    Select the correct option using the code given below:

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Recently, scientists in China created the world’s first cloned wild Arctic wolf ‘Maya’.
    ● Statement 1 is correct: The copied material, which has the same genetic makeup as the original, is referred to as a clone. The cloning of animals has been used in a number of different applications. Animals have been cloned to have gene mutations that help scientists study diseases that develop in the animals.
    ● Statement 2 is correct: Cloning can be used to bring back extinct species like the woolly mammoth or giant panda.
    ● Statement 3 is correct: The term cloning describes a number of different processes that can be used to produce genetically identical copies of a biological entity. Researchers have cloned a wide range of biological materials, including genes, cells, tissues and even entire organisms, such as a sheep.
    There are three different types of cloning:
    ● Gene cloning, which creates copies of genes or segments of DNA
    ● Reproductive cloning, which creates copies of whole animals
    ● Therapeutic cloning, which creates embryonic stem cells. Researchers hope to use these cells to grow healthy tissue to replace injured or diseased tissues in the human body.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Recently, scientists in China created the world’s first cloned wild Arctic wolf ‘Maya’.
    ● Statement 1 is correct: The copied material, which has the same genetic makeup as the original, is referred to as a clone. The cloning of animals has been used in a number of different applications. Animals have been cloned to have gene mutations that help scientists study diseases that develop in the animals.
    ● Statement 2 is correct: Cloning can be used to bring back extinct species like the woolly mammoth or giant panda.
    ● Statement 3 is correct: The term cloning describes a number of different processes that can be used to produce genetically identical copies of a biological entity. Researchers have cloned a wide range of biological materials, including genes, cells, tissues and even entire organisms, such as a sheep.
    There are three different types of cloning:
    ● Gene cloning, which creates copies of genes or segments of DNA
    ● Reproductive cloning, which creates copies of whole animals
    ● Therapeutic cloning, which creates embryonic stem cells. Researchers hope to use these cells to grow healthy tissue to replace injured or diseased tissues in the human body.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question
    2 points

    2. Consider the following statements regarding the International Counter Ransomware Initiative:
    1. It is an initiative of the UN Office of Counter-Terrorism (UNOCT)-led Counter Ransomware.
    2. It seeks to enhance international cooperation to combat the growth of ransomware.
    3. India is a member of this initiative.
    Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    In the face of enhanced ransomware attacks globally, the International Counter Ransomware Initiative (CRI) has decided to deepen its institutional collaboration to enhance “collective resilience” to ransomware, disrupt attacks and pursue responsible actors.
    ● Statement 1 is incorrect: It is an US-led Counter Ransomware Initiative.The White House brought together 36 countries, and the EU, for the Second International Counter Ransomware Initiative (CRI) Summit October 31-November 1, 2022. Throughout the Summit, CRI and private sector partners discussed and developed concrete, cooperative actions to counter the spread and impact of ransomware around the globe. Combating illicit financial and digital asset transactions is discussed at the International Counter Ransomware Initiative Summit. Private sector companies will also participate in the summit, fulfilling a key measure to implement into many of its technology policies.
    ● Statement 2 is correct: It seeks to enhance international cooperation to combat the growth of ransomware.
    ● Statement 3 is correct: CRI is a grouping of 36 countries (including India) and the European Union that aims to disrupt ransomware attacks and strengthen the international cybersecurity agenda.

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    In the face of enhanced ransomware attacks globally, the International Counter Ransomware Initiative (CRI) has decided to deepen its institutional collaboration to enhance “collective resilience” to ransomware, disrupt attacks and pursue responsible actors.
    ● Statement 1 is incorrect: It is an US-led Counter Ransomware Initiative.The White House brought together 36 countries, and the EU, for the Second International Counter Ransomware Initiative (CRI) Summit October 31-November 1, 2022. Throughout the Summit, CRI and private sector partners discussed and developed concrete, cooperative actions to counter the spread and impact of ransomware around the globe. Combating illicit financial and digital asset transactions is discussed at the International Counter Ransomware Initiative Summit. Private sector companies will also participate in the summit, fulfilling a key measure to implement into many of its technology policies.
    ● Statement 2 is correct: It seeks to enhance international cooperation to combat the growth of ransomware.
    ● Statement 3 is correct: CRI is a grouping of 36 countries (including India) and the European Union that aims to disrupt ransomware attacks and strengthen the international cybersecurity agenda.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question
    2 points

    3. Consider the following statements regarding Dark Sky Reserve:
    1. It is a place having minimal artificial light interference.
    2. Bortle scale measures the night sky’s brightness of a location on a nine-level numerical scale.
    3. India’s first Dark Sky Reserve will be set up in Hanle, Ladakh.
    Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Context: Within Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary, the six hamlets of Bhok, Shado, Punguk, Khuldo, Naga and Tibetan Refugee habitations together form a cluster or an area which has been officially notified as the Hanle Dark Sky Reserve.
    ● Statement 1 is correct: Dark Sky Reserve is a place that has policies to ensure that a tract of land or region has minimal artificial light interference. A dark sky reserve is an area where light pollution is monitored. Basically, there are several restrictions around the reserve where humans are not allowed to have any loud source of light.
    ● Statement 2 is correct: In astronomy, Bortle scale which measures the night sky’s brightness of a location on a nine-level numerical scale. The lesser the numerical scale it qualifies for a better dark sky location. For example, Hanle skies would qualify as Bortle one skies, Talacauvery, Karnataka as Bortle two, and Bengaluru as Bortle nine.
    ● Statement 3 is correct: Department of Science & Technology has announced setting up of India’s first dark sky reserve at Hanle in Ladakh as a part of Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary. It will be one of the world’s highest-located sites for optical, infra-red, and gamma-ray telescopes.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Context: Within Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary, the six hamlets of Bhok, Shado, Punguk, Khuldo, Naga and Tibetan Refugee habitations together form a cluster or an area which has been officially notified as the Hanle Dark Sky Reserve.
    ● Statement 1 is correct: Dark Sky Reserve is a place that has policies to ensure that a tract of land or region has minimal artificial light interference. A dark sky reserve is an area where light pollution is monitored. Basically, there are several restrictions around the reserve where humans are not allowed to have any loud source of light.
    ● Statement 2 is correct: In astronomy, Bortle scale which measures the night sky’s brightness of a location on a nine-level numerical scale. The lesser the numerical scale it qualifies for a better dark sky location. For example, Hanle skies would qualify as Bortle one skies, Talacauvery, Karnataka as Bortle two, and Bengaluru as Bortle nine.
    ● Statement 3 is correct: Department of Science & Technology has announced setting up of India’s first dark sky reserve at Hanle in Ladakh as a part of Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary. It will be one of the world’s highest-located sites for optical, infra-red, and gamma-ray telescopes.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question
    2 points

    4. Consider the following statements related to the minimum requirement for the NATO membership:
    1. New members must uphold democracy, including tolerating diversity.
    2. New members must be making progress toward a market economy.
    3. Their military forces must be under firm civilian control.
    4. They must be good neighbours and respect sovereignty outside their borders.
    5. They must be working toward compatibility with NATO forces.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    All the five statements are correct. They are considered the five minimum requirements for becoming a NATO member.
    Minimum Requirements for NATO Membership: NATO membership is potentially open to all of Europe’s emerging democracies that share the alliance’s values and are ready to meet the obligations of membership.
    At a minimum, candidates for membership must meet the following five requirements:
    ● New members must uphold democracy, including tolerating diversity.
    ● New members must be making progress toward a market economy.
    ● Their military forces must be under firm civilian control.
    ● They must be good neighbours and respect sovereignty outside their borders.
    ● They must be working toward compatibility with NATO forces.
    Again, while these criteria are essential, they do not constitute a checklist leading automatically to NATO membership. The process to become member of NATO is as follows:
    ● The key determinant for any invitation to new members is related to the five principles of Washington Treaty
    ● NATO’s “open door policy” is based upon Article 10 of the Washington Treaty 1949, which states that membership is open to any “European State in a position to further the principles of this Treaty and to contribute to the security of the North Atlantic area”.
    ● New members must be invited by a consensus of current members. Decisions to invite new members must take into account the required ratification process in the member states.
    ● In the case of the United States, decisions are made in consultation with Congress.
    ● Once all NATO member countries ratify accession protocols of the North Atlantic Treaty, the Secretary General invites the new countries to accede to the Treaty.
    The enlargement of the Alliance is an ongoing and dynamic process. Since the Alliance was created in 1949, its membership has grown from the 12 founding members to today’s 31 members through nine rounds of enlargement in 1952, 1955, 1982, 1999, 2004, 2009, 2017, 2020 and 2023.
    Recently, Finland has become a member of NATO. In May 2022, Finland and Sweden declared their intent to join NATO. On 5 July, Allies signed the Accession Protocols for Finland and Sweden, which then became Invitees, attending NATO meetings under that title until all Allies ratified the Accession Protocols according to their national procedures. Following the ratification of Finland’s Accession Protocol by all NATO Allies, the country was formally invited to accede to the Washington Treaty (also known as the North Atlantic Treaty) 1949, and joined the Alliance on 4 April 2023. After Sweden’s Accession Protocol is ratified by all NATO member countries according to national procedures, the country will also become a NATO Ally.
    NATO’s door remains open to any European country in a position to undertake the commitments and obligations of membership, and contribute to security in the Euro-Atlantic area. Since 1949, NATO’s membership has increased from 12 to 31 countries through nine rounds of enlargement. Finland became the latest country to join the Alliance on 4 April 2023. Currently, four partner countries have declared their aspirations to NATO membership: Bosnia and Herzegovina, Georgia, Sweden and Ukraine.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    All the five statements are correct. They are considered the five minimum requirements for becoming a NATO member.
    Minimum Requirements for NATO Membership: NATO membership is potentially open to all of Europe’s emerging democracies that share the alliance’s values and are ready to meet the obligations of membership.
    At a minimum, candidates for membership must meet the following five requirements:
    ● New members must uphold democracy, including tolerating diversity.
    ● New members must be making progress toward a market economy.
    ● Their military forces must be under firm civilian control.
    ● They must be good neighbours and respect sovereignty outside their borders.
    ● They must be working toward compatibility with NATO forces.
    Again, while these criteria are essential, they do not constitute a checklist leading automatically to NATO membership. The process to become member of NATO is as follows:
    ● The key determinant for any invitation to new members is related to the five principles of Washington Treaty
    ● NATO’s “open door policy” is based upon Article 10 of the Washington Treaty 1949, which states that membership is open to any “European State in a position to further the principles of this Treaty and to contribute to the security of the North Atlantic area”.
    ● New members must be invited by a consensus of current members. Decisions to invite new members must take into account the required ratification process in the member states.
    ● In the case of the United States, decisions are made in consultation with Congress.
    ● Once all NATO member countries ratify accession protocols of the North Atlantic Treaty, the Secretary General invites the new countries to accede to the Treaty.
    The enlargement of the Alliance is an ongoing and dynamic process. Since the Alliance was created in 1949, its membership has grown from the 12 founding members to today’s 31 members through nine rounds of enlargement in 1952, 1955, 1982, 1999, 2004, 2009, 2017, 2020 and 2023.
    Recently, Finland has become a member of NATO. In May 2022, Finland and Sweden declared their intent to join NATO. On 5 July, Allies signed the Accession Protocols for Finland and Sweden, which then became Invitees, attending NATO meetings under that title until all Allies ratified the Accession Protocols according to their national procedures. Following the ratification of Finland’s Accession Protocol by all NATO Allies, the country was formally invited to accede to the Washington Treaty (also known as the North Atlantic Treaty) 1949, and joined the Alliance on 4 April 2023. After Sweden’s Accession Protocol is ratified by all NATO member countries according to national procedures, the country will also become a NATO Ally.
    NATO’s door remains open to any European country in a position to undertake the commitments and obligations of membership, and contribute to security in the Euro-Atlantic area. Since 1949, NATO’s membership has increased from 12 to 31 countries through nine rounds of enlargement. Finland became the latest country to join the Alliance on 4 April 2023. Currently, four partner countries have declared their aspirations to NATO membership: Bosnia and Herzegovina, Georgia, Sweden and Ukraine.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question
    2 points

    5. Consider the following statements regarding Online Gaming:
    1. The Ministry of Sports is mandated to make rules related to online gaming.
    2. Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Amendment Rules, 2023 require real money gaming platforms to register with a Self-Regulatory Body (SRB).
    3. Online gaming platforms can’t engage in betting on the outcome of games.
    Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Recently, the Government of India amended the rules regulating online real money gaming.
    ● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology is formally in charge of making rules related to online gaming while the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports is in charge of e-sports. The central government notified these changes to the Allocation of Business Rules on December 26, 2022.
    ● Statement 2 is correct: The IT Ministry’s Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Amendment Rules, 2023 require real money gaming platforms to register with a self-regulatory body (SRB) that will determine whether or not the game is “permissible”.
    ● Statement 3 is correct: Platforms can’t engage in betting on the outcome of games.

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Recently, the Government of India amended the rules regulating online real money gaming.
    ● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology is formally in charge of making rules related to online gaming while the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports is in charge of e-sports. The central government notified these changes to the Allocation of Business Rules on December 26, 2022.
    ● Statement 2 is correct: The IT Ministry’s Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Amendment Rules, 2023 require real money gaming platforms to register with a self-regulatory body (SRB) that will determine whether or not the game is “permissible”.
    ● Statement 3 is correct: Platforms can’t engage in betting on the outcome of games.

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TOP 5 TAKKAR NEWS OF THE DAY (17th AUGUST 2023)

1. INCOIS LAUNCHES ‘SAMUDRA’ MOBILE APP

TAG:  GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) has come out with a new mobile application ‘SAMUDRA’ – Smart Access to Marine Users for Ocean Data Resources and Advisories.

EXPLANATION:

  • It offers comprehensive information on all ocean related services, useful for both seafarers and the fishing community.
  • It will be especially beneficial to the fishing community as it disseminates potential fishing zone advisories which will guide them to the probable fish aggregation locations. Fishermen can be guided to the most probable fish aggregation locations enabling them to maximise catch rates, and thus, improve livelihoods.
  • It empowers users with real-time updates and critical alerts on oceanic disasters such as tsunamis, storm surges, high waves, and swell surge alerts, for the individuals and communities to stay informed and take necessary precautions.
  • Till now, INCOIS has been providing fishing zone and Ocean State Forecast (OSF) services through SMS messaging to about seven lakh fishermen across all the coastal states.
  • The OSF services are being provided to various public and private firms like the Indian Coast Guard, Indian Navy, shipping industries, maritime boards, ONGC – Oil & Natural Gas Commission and others.
  • The five-day advanced OSFs will help mariners, fishermen, and coastal communities to plan their activities in advance, mitigating risks and optimizing operations based on predicted ocean conditions.
  • The app also has interactive maps, charts, and animations for enhanced comprehension of complex oceanic phenomena, explained the scientists.
  • It is a cutting-edge tool helping users to navigate the marine domain with confidence on their safety, and profitable fishing operations.
  • It will catalyse sustainable ocean activities, thus enabling a way forward for the Blue Economy.

Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS)

  • INCOIS was established as an autonomous body in 1999 under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) and is a unit of the Earth System Science Organisation (ESSO).
  • It is mandated to provide the best possible ocean information and advisory services to society, industry, government agencies and the scientific community through sustained ocean observations and research.

Activities:

  • Provides daily advisories to fisher folk to help them easily locate areas of abundant fish in the ocean while saving on both fuel and time used to search for the same.
  • Deploys and maintains a suite of Ocean Observing Systems in the Indian Ocean to collect data on various oceanic parameters to understand the processes in the ocean and to predict their changes.
  • Carries out Research and Modeling to optimize the performance of mathematical models used for ocean state forecasts, prediction of tsunami waves, storm surges, etc. along the coast.

The Earth System Science Organization (ESSO):

  • It was established in October, 2007 as a virtual organization in New Delhi. It operates as an executive arm of the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) for its policies and programmes.
  • It provides overall direction for the centers/units and review the implementation of the programs. It aims to address holistically various aspects relating to earth processes for understanding the variability of earth system.
  • It brings all meteorological and ocean development activities under one umbrella, recognizing the importance of strong coupling among various components of the earth viz. atmosphere, oceans, cryo-sphere and geo-sphere.
  • It has four major branches of earth sciences:
  1. Ocean Science & Technology
  2. Atmospheric and Climate Science
  3. Geosciences and Technology
  4. Polar Science and Cryosphere

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/telangana/incois-launches-samudra-mobile-app-for-seafarers-and-fishing-community/article67193794.ece

2. GUIDELINES ON GENERIC MEDICINES

TAG: GS 2: SOCIAL JUSTICE.

THE CONTEXT: The National Medical Commission (NMC) is taking steps to better enforce the use of generic medicines by issuing fresh guidelines on it.

EXPLANATION:

  • The NMC has directed doctors to prescribe generic drugs instead of branded drugs.
  • Branded drugs are much more expensive than generic drugs and they are supported by large-scale commercial promotion by pharma companies.
  • Generic drugs have the same composition, effects, side effects and usage as the branded drugs but are often ignored as there is a nexus between doctors, pharma companies and medical shops to promote branded drugs.
  • It has also directed that prescriptions should be written clearly and legibly, preferably in capital letters. Carelessly written prescriptions create confusion and have sometimes resulted in patients taking wrong medicines.
  • Doctors will now have to prescribe only generic medicines, except for cases where medicines have a narrow therapeutic index drugs where a small difference in dosage may lead to adverse outcomes and in other exceptional cases.
  • The guidelines have also sought judicious use of fixed-dose combinations and asked doctors only to prescribe approved, rational combinations.
  • Doctors have been told to educate people on generics being equivalent to branded medicines, urge pharmacies to stock them, and to encourage people to buy medicines from Jan Aushadhi Kendras and other generic drug outlets.
  • The enforcement of the guidelines will make a big difference to patients with respect to their out-of-pocket expenditure.

National Medical Commission (NMC)

  • The National Medical Commission is a regulatory body of 33 members which regulates medical education and medical professionals.
  • It replaced the Medical Council of India on 25 September 2020.
  • The Commission grants recognition of medical qualifications, gives accreditation to medical schools, grants registration to medical practitioners, and monitors medical practice and assesses the medical infrastructure in India.

The commission consists of four autonomous boards:

  • Under-Graduate Medical Education Board (UGMEB),
  • Post-Graduate Medical Education Board (PGMEB),
  • Medical Assessment and Rating Board and
  • Ethics and Medical Registration Board

What are generic medicines?

  • Generic medicines are pharmaceutical drugs that contains the same chemical substance as a drug that was originally protected by chemical patents.
  • Generic medicines are allowed for sale after the patents on the original drugs expire. Because the active chemical substance is the same, the medical profile of generics is equivalent in performance.
  • A generic medicine has the same Active Pharmaceutical Ingredient (API) as the original, but it may differ in some characteristics such as the manufacturing process, formulation, excipients, color, taste, and packaging.

SOURCE: https://www.deccanherald.com/opinion/editorial/guidelines-on-generic-medicines-welcome-2648867

3. AATMANIRBHAR BHARAT ROJGAR YOJANA (ABRY)

TAG: GS 2: SOCIAL JUSTICE; GS 3: ECONOMY

THE CONTEXT: The government has fallen short of its target for employment generation in the formal sector under the Aatmanirbhar Bharat Rojgar Yojana (ABRY), launched in 2020 at the time of the pandemic.

EXPLANATION:

  • As per latest government data, enrolments under ABRY stood at 6.04 million as on July 22, 2023, which is less than target of the revised target of generating 7.18 million jobs under the scheme but higher than its initial target of 5.85 million.
  • The centre has so far spend 9663.82 crore under the scheme, which is only 42.3% of the initial target expenditure of 22810 crore for the entire scheme period.
  • Instead, the Centre reimburses provident fund and pension contribution of either both the employee and employer (24% of wages) or only the employee(12% of wages) in case the establishment has over 1000 workers.
  • As per government data, the number of beneficiaries under the scheme stood at 1.29 million in 2021-22, about 5,40,000 in 2022-22 and 9082 till July 18 in 2023-24.
  • Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Gujrat, Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan, Telangana, Delhi and Madhya Pradesh are the top 10 states in creating formal employment under ABRY.
  • These 10 states contribute 79.4% of the total beneficiaries under the scheme and have drawn 76.6% of the centres’s expenditure under it so far.

Atmanirbhar Bharat Rozgar Yojana

  • It was launched in December 2020 as part of Aatmanirbhar Bharat 3.0 package and aims to boost employment in formal sector and incentivize creation of new employment opportunities during the Covid recovery phase.
  • The scheme, being implemented through EPFO, covers employees hired till March 2022, and those who lost their job between March 1, 2020 and September 30, 2020, and are drawing less than Rs 15000 a month.
  • The scheme is to be operational for the period 2020-2023.

Beneficiaries

  • An employee drawing monthly wage of less than Rs. 15000/- who was not working in any EPFO registered establishment and did not have a Universal Account Number (UAN) prior to 01st October, 2020 who joins employment in any establishment on or after 01.10.2020 up to 31.03.2022 and who is allotted Aadhaar validated UAN.
  • Any EPF member, already allotted with UAN, who made exit from employment during the period from 01.03.2020 to 30.09.2020 (Covid Pandemic) from any establishment and who joins in any establishment on or after 01.10.2020 and up to 31.03.2022.
  • The incentive is payable by the Central Government by upfront credit in the UANs of the new employees.

Eligibility criteria for Establishments

Establishments registered with EPFO if they add new employees compared to reference base of employees as in September, 2020 as under:

  • minimum of two new employees if reference base is 50 employees or less.
  • minimum of five new employees if reference base is more than 50 employees.

Benefits

Government of India will provide subsidy for two years in respect of new employees engaged on or after 1st October, 2020 and upto 30th June, 2021 at following scale

  • Establishments employing up to 1000 employees: Employee’s contributions (12% of Wages) & Employer’s contributions (12% of wages) totalling 24% of wages
  • Establishments employing more than 1000 employees: Only Employee’s EPF contributions (12% of EPF wages)

The subsidy support to get credited upfront in Aadhaar seeded EPFO Account (UAN) of eligible new employee.

SOURCE: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/policy/scheme-for-formal-employment-generation-falls-short-of-target/articleshow/102781224.cms?from=mdr

4. CARBON SEQUESTRATION

TAG: GS 3: ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: Carbon sequestration has become a potent ally in our fight against rising carbon dioxide levels and the resulting environmental consequences.

EXPLANATION:

  • The impacts of climate change are an issue for the entire world.
  • Environmental, social, and governance (ESG) ideas are becoming more and more important for businesses to incorporate into their operations.
  • Carbon sequestration stands out among these ideas as a crucial business requirement.

What is carbon sequestration?

  • Carbon sequestration is the process of capturing and storing atmospheric carbon dioxide.
  • It is one method of reducing the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere with the goal of reducing global climate change.
  • Carbon sequestration can be done naturally as well as artificially.
  • Carbon sequestration has been recognised as essential to the fight against climate change, which threatens Earth’s ecosystems and human well-being.
  • India is the 3rd largest emitter of CO2 in the world after China and the US, with estimated annual emissions of about 2.6 gigatonne per annum (gtpa).

Methods of Carbon Sequestration

  • There are two primary types of carbon sequestration: natural and artificial.
  • Natural Sequestration:
  • Natural carbon sequestration occurs through various ecosystems and processes, such as photosynthesis in plants, which captures CO2 and converts it into organic matter.
  • Forests, wetlands, and oceans are natural carbon sinks, where CO2 is absorbed and stored over time.
  • Artificial Sequestration:
  • Artificial carbon sequestration involves human-driven methods to capture and store CO2. E.g.:
  • Direct air capture, where CO2 is extracted directly from the air using special technology
  • Carbon capture and storage (CCS), where CO2 emissions from industrial processes are captured before they are released into the atmosphere.

How does carbon sequestration help in dealing climate issues?

  • Carbon dioxide, the most commonly produced greenhouse gas, is being captured in the process of carbon sequestration.
  • About 25% of our carbon emissions have historically been captured by Earth’s forests, farms, and grasslands.
  • 30% of the carbon dioxide we emit from burning fossils fuels is absorbed by the upper layer of the ocean.
  • 45% of carbon dioxide stays in the atmosphere, the rest is sequestered naturally by the environment.

India’s initiative in tackling the issue.

  • The Government of India has committed to reducing CO2 emissions by 50% by 2050.
  • India aims to reach net zero goal by 2070. (Net Zero means cutting greenhouse gas emissions to as close to zero as possible)
  • India’s Carbon Capture, Utilization, and Storage programme aims to reduce carbon emission by either storing or reusing it so that captured carbon dioxide does not enter the atmosphere.
  • The growth of renewable power capacity has been one of the key success stories of the clean energy transition in India.
  • Power sector contributes to about 1/3 rd of the aggregate CO2 emissions, which will continue to abate as renewables increasingly replace fossil fuel-based power generation.

SOURCE: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/how-to/whats-carbon-sequestration-and-how-it-can-help-deal-climate-issues/articleshow/102779362.cms?from=mdr

5. UNMANNED AERIAL VEHICLES

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: Tamil Nadu is developing the nation’s first Common Testing Centre for Unmanned Aerial Systems (drones).

EXPLANATION:

  • This centre would be established over an area of about 2.3 acres at the SIPCOT Industrial Park, Vallam Vadagal near Sriperumbudur.
  • The initiative is led by the Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Corporation (TIDCO) as part of the TN Defence Industrial Corridor.
  • The testing centre would enable the State to be a significant contributor to the self-reliance of the country in the aerospace and defence sectors.
  • The lack of a Common Testing Centre has been a barrier for organizations in this sector.
  • TIDCO has initiated the setup of such testing centres under the Centre’s Defence Testing Infrastructure Scheme.

What is Drone or Unmanned Aerial Vehicle?

  • It is powered, aerial vehicle that does not carry a human operator, uses aerodynamic forces to provide vehicle lift.
  • It is commonly known as a drone.
  • UAVs are a component of an unmanned aircraft system, which include additionally a ground-based controller and a system of communications with the UAV.
  • Drones have been divided into five categories based on their weight:
  • Nano: Less than or equal to 250 grams
  • Micro: From 250 grams to 2kg
  • Small: From 2 kg to 25kg
  • Medium: From 25kg to 150kg
  • Large: Greater than 150kg.

Drone flying restrictions in India.

  • A micro drone may not fly higher than 60 metres above ground level (AGL) or faster than 25 metres per second.
  • A small drone may not fly higher than 120 metres above ground level or faster than 25 metres per second.
  • Drones that are medium or large must fly in compliance with the conditions outlined in the DGCA’s Operator Permit.
  • Prohibited zones are completely off-limits, whereas restricted areas require prior approval from the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA).

Drones’ regulations in India

Drone regulations are under the ambit of the Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA).

  • Drone rules 2021
  • A single-window online system with a business-friendly interface will be created for the Digital Sky Platform.
  • Green zones and the area between 8 and 12 kilometres from the airport’s boundary do not require a flying permission for flights higher than 400 feet or 200 feet, respectively.
  • No pilot licence required for micro drones (for non-commercial use), nano drones and for R&D organisations.
  • There are no restrictions on foreign-owned businesses with Indian registration using drones.
  • No security clearance is necessary prior to the issue of any registration or licence.
  • No requirement of certificate of airworthiness, unique identification number, prior permission and remote pilot licence for R&D entities.
  • Coverage of drones under Drone Rules, 2021 increased from 300 kg to 500 kg. This will cover drone taxis also.
  • Issuance of Certificate of Airworthiness delegated to Quality Council of India and certification entities authorised by it.
  • Manufacturer may generate their drone’s unique identification number on the digital sky platform through the self-certification route.
  • Maximum penalty under Drone Rules, 2021 reduced to INR 1 lakh. This shall, however, not apply to penalties in respect of violation of other laws.
  • Drone corridors will be developed for cargo deliveries.
  • Drone promotion council to be set up to facilitate a business-friendly regulatory regime.
  • Drone rules 2022
  • The requirement of a drone pilot licence has been abolished.
  • There will be no requirement for a remote pilot certificate when using a drone up to two kilogrammes for non-commercial activities.
  • The Remote Pilot Certificate issued by a Directorate General of Civil Aviation approved drone school through the single window Digital Sky platform will be sufficient for operating drones in the country.
  • An individual owning any unmanned aircraft system manufactured in India or imported into India on or before 30th of November, 2021 must make an application to register and obtain a unique identification number and state the required details in form D-2 and the stipulated fee under Rule 46.
  • To promote Made in India drones, the import of foreign drones has been prohibited in the country.

PLI Scheme for Drones and Drone Components

  • Central government approved the Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for drones and drone components for implementation during the year 2022-23 till 2024-25 with an outlay of Rs 120 crore.
  • The PLI scheme and new drone rules are intended to catalyse supernormal growth in the upcoming drone sector.
  • The annual sales turnover of the drone manufacturing industry may grow from INR 60 crore in 2020-21 fold to over INR 900 crore in FY 2023-24.
  • The incentive programme may result in investments more than 5,000 crore Indian rupees over the course of the following three years in the manufacturing of drones and drone components.
  • India has the potential to establish itself as a major drone hub by 2030 given its historical prowess in innovation, information technology, cost-effective engineering, and local demand.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/indias-first-unmanned-aerial-systems-drone-common-testing-centre-under-defence-testing-infrastructure-scheme-to-be-established-in-tamil-nadu/article67202641.ece